Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
16.06.2025 04:38
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Which is the worst Bollywood movie you have ever seen and why?
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What was the worst spanking you ever got? Why did you get it, and how was it given to you?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.